Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 08:09
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What is it like to wear a kilt?
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
How can someone effectively handle a targeted individual?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.